Consider a function $f: [0, \frac{\pi}{2}] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = \sin x$ and $g: [0, \frac{\pi}{2}] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ given by $g(x) = \cos x$. Show that $f$ and $g$ are one-one,but $f + g$ is not one-one.

Vedclass pdf generator app on play store
Vedclass iOS app on app store
(N/A) For any two distinct elements $x_1, x_2 \in [0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$,we know that the sine function is strictly increasing on this interval,so $\sin x_1 \neq \sin x_2$. Thus,$f$ is one-one.
Similarly,the cosine function is strictly decreasing on $[0, \frac{\pi}{2}]$,so $\cos x_1 \neq \cos x_2$. Thus,$g$ is one-one.
Now,consider the function $h(x) = (f + g)(x) = \sin x + \cos x$.
We evaluate $h(0) = \sin 0 + \cos 0 = 0 + 1 = 1$.
We evaluate $h(\frac{\pi}{2}) = \sin \frac{\pi}{2} + \cos \frac{\pi}{2} = 1 + 0 = 1$.
Since $h(0) = h(\frac{\pi}{2})$ but $0 \neq \frac{\pi}{2}$,the function $f + g$ is not one-one.

Explore More

Similar Questions

If $f: R \rightarrow R$,then the function $f(x) = x|x|$ is:

Let $A$ and $B$ be non-empty sets in $\mathbb{R}$ and $f : A \to B$ be a bijective function.
Statement $1$ : $f$ is an onto function.
Statement $2$ : There exists a function $g : B \to A$ such that $f \circ g = I_B$.

Let $f: R \to R$ be defined as $f(x) = x^3$. Then $f$ is . . . . . . .

$A = \{1, 2, 3, 4\}$ and $B = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6\}$ are two sets, and the function $f: A \rightarrow B$ is defined by $f(x) = x + 2$ for all $x \in A$. Then the function $f$ is:

The function $f: (-\infty, \infty) \rightarrow (-\infty, \infty)$ defined by $f(x) = \frac{2^x - 2^{-x}}{2^x + 2^{-x}}$ is :

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo