If a variable takes values $0, 1, 2, \dots, n$ with frequencies ${q^n}, \frac{n}{1}{q^{n - 1}}p, \frac{n(n - 1)}{1 \times 2}{q^{n - 2}}{p^2}, \dots, {p^n}$,where $p + q = 1$,then the mean is

  • A
    $np$
  • B
    $nq$
  • C
    $n(p + q)$
  • D
    None of these

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