Suppose $X$ follows a binomial distribution with parameters $n$ and $p$, where $0 < p < 1$. If $\frac{P(X=r)}{P(X=n-r)}$ is independent of $n$ for every $r$, then $p$ is equal to

  • A
    $\frac{1}{2}$
  • B
    $\frac{1}{3}$
  • C
    $\frac{1}{4}$
  • D
    $\frac{1}{8}$

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