The magnetic force depends on $v$,which depends on the inertial frame of reference. Does the magnetic force differ from one inertial frame to another? Is it reasonable that the net acceleration has a different value in different frames of reference?

(N/A) The magnetic force is given by $\vec{F}_m = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})$. Since the velocity $\vec{v}$ of a charged particle depends on the inertial frame of reference,the magnetic force experienced by the particle also depends on the frame of reference.
However,the total force (Lorentz force) is $\vec{F} = q(\vec{E} + \vec{v} \times \vec{B})$. When we change the frame of reference,the electric field $\vec{E}$ and magnetic field $\vec{B}$ transform such that the total force $\vec{F}$ remains consistent with the laws of physics in that frame.
Regarding the net acceleration,according to Newton's second law,$\vec{a} = \vec{F}/m$. Since the force $\vec{F}$ is frame-dependent,the acceleration $\vec{a}$ can indeed be different in different inertial frames. This is consistent with the principle of relativity,as long as the laws of physics (like Maxwell's equations) are invariant across these frames.