Two balls $X(2 \ kg)$ and $Y(4 \ kg)$ approach each other with equal speeds of $10 \ ms^{-1}$. If the collision is perfectly elastic,then the new velocities of balls $X$ and $Y$ are respectively

  • A
    $\frac{50}{3} \ ms^{-1}, -\frac{10}{3} \ ms^{-1}$
  • B
    $-\frac{50}{3} \ ms^{-1}, -\frac{10}{3} \ ms^{-1}$
  • C
    $-\frac{50}{3} \ ms^{-1}, \frac{10}{3} \ ms^{-1}$
  • D
    $\frac{50}{3} \ ms^{-1}, \frac{10}{3} \ ms^{-1}$

Explore More

Similar Questions

$Assertion$: $n$ small balls each of mass $m$ collide elastically each second on a surface with velocity $u$. The force experienced by the surface is $2mnu$.
$Reason$: On elastic collision,the ball rebounds with the same velocity.

$A$ block of mass $m$ slides with speed $v$ on a frictionless table towards another stationary block of mass $m$. $A$ massless spring with spring constant $k$ is attached to the second block as shown in the figure. The maximum distance the spring gets compressed is

$A$ smooth sphere $A$ of mass $m$ collides elastically with an identical sphere $B$ at rest. The velocity of $A$ before collision is $8 \ m/s$ in a direction making $60^{\circ}$ with the line of centers at the time of impact.
$(i)$ The sphere $A$ comes to rest after collision.
$(ii)$ The sphere $B$ will move with a speed of $8 \ m/s$ after collision.
$(iii)$ The directions of motion of $A$ and $B$ after collision are at right angles.
$(iv)$ The speed of $B$ after collision is $4 \ m/s$.
The correct option is:

Difficult
View Solution

$A$ particle of mass $m$ is moving with a horizontal speed of $6 \, m/s$ as shown in the figure. If $m << M$,then for a one-dimensional elastic collision,the speed of the lighter particle after the collision will be:

$A$ particle of mass $m$ moving with a velocity $u$ makes an elastic one-dimensional collision with a stationary particle of mass $m$. They are in contact for a total time $T$. The contact force increases linearly from $0$ to $F_0$ in time $\frac{T}{4}$, remains constant for a further time $\frac{T}{2}$, and decreases linearly from $F_0$ to $0$ in the final time $\frac{T}{4}$, as shown in the graph. The magnitude of $F_0$ is:

Difficult
View Solution

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo