2 men and 1 woman can do a piece of work in 1 | vedclass

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(B) Let the efficiency of $1$ man be $m$ and $1$ woman be $w$ units of work per day.According to the problem:$14(2m + 1w) = 1$ (Total work) ...$(i)$$8

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$60$

Vedclass · Answer

(B) Let the efficiency of $1$ man be $m$ and $1$ woman be $w$ units of work per day.According to the problem:$14(2m + 1w) = 1$ (Total work) ...$(i)$$8(2m + 4w) = 1$ (Total work) ...$(ii)$Equating $(i)$ and $(ii)$:$14(2m + w) = 8(2m + 4w)$$28m + 14w = 16m + 32w$$28m - 16m = 32w - 14w$$12m = 18w$$\frac{m}{w} = \frac{18}{12} = \frac{3}{2}$The ratio of the efficiency of a man to a woman is $3:2$. Since wages are proportional to the work done (efficiency),the ratio of their daily wages will also be $3:2$.Let the daily wage of a woman be $x$.$\frac{90}{x} = \frac{3}{2}$$3x = 180$$x = 60$Therefore,the daily wage of a woman is $Rs. 60$.

$2$ men and $1$ woman can do a piece of work in $14$ days,while $4$ women and $2$ men can do the same work in $8$ days. If a man gets $Rs. 90$ per day,what should be the wages per day of a woman? (in $Rs.$)

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