If vec{A} times vec{B} = vec{0} and vec{B} ti | vedclass

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(A) Given that $\vec{A} 	imes \vec{B} = \vec{0}$,it implies that $\vec{A}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ $(\vec{A} \parallel \vec{B})$.Given that $\vec{B}

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(A) Given that $\vec{A} 	imes \vec{B} = \vec{0}$,it implies that $\vec{A}$ is parallel to $\vec{B}$ $(\vec{A} \parallel \vec{B})$.Given that $\vec{B} 	imes \vec{C} = \vec{0}$,it implies that $\vec{B}$ is parallel to $\vec{C}$ $(\vec{B} \parallel \vec{C})$.Since both $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{C}$ are parallel to the same vector $\vec{B}$,it follows that $\vec{A}$ must be parallel to $\vec{C}$ $(\vec{A} \parallel \vec{C})$.Therefore,the angle between $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{C}$ is $0$ (or $180^{\circ}$ if they are anti-parallel,but $0$ is the standard result for parallel vectors).

If $\vec{A} \times \vec{B} = \vec{0}$ and $\vec{B} \times \vec{C} = \vec{0}$,what is the angle between $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{C}$?

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