Answer the following questions:
$(a)$ Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when cooled?
$(b)$ Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?
$(c)$ If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
$(d)$ Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not, is it more for lower or higher fields?
$(e)$ Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface of a conductor at every point.) Why?
$(f)$ Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

Vedclass pdf generator app on play store
Vedclass iOS app on app store
$(a)$ Due to random thermal motion, the alignment of atomic dipoles is disrupted at higher temperatures. Cooling reduces this thermal agitation, allowing more dipoles to align with the external field, resulting in greater magnetization.
$(b)$ Diamagnetism arises from the orbital motion of electrons, which is an inherent property of the atoms. Since this motion is not significantly affected by thermal agitation, diamagnetism is almost independent of temperature.
$(c)$ Bismuth is a diamagnetic substance. Since diamagnetic materials expel magnetic field lines, the magnetic field in the core will be slightly less than when the core is empty.
$(d)$ No, the permeability of a ferromagnetic material is not independent of the magnetic field. It is higher for lower magnetic fields and decreases as the field increases due to the saturation effect.
$(e)$ Ferromagnetic materials have a very high relative permeability $(\mu_r \gg 1)$. Because the material is highly permeable, the magnetic field lines tend to concentrate inside it, making them nearly normal to the surface, similar to how electric field lines behave at the surface of a conductor.
$(f)$ Yes, the maximum possible magnetization of a paramagnetic sample can be of the same order of magnitude as that of a ferromagnet, provided that the sample is subjected to very high magnetizing fields at very low temperatures to achieve saturation.

Explore More

Similar Questions

Two short magnets of magnetic moment $1000 \, A m^2$ are placed as shown at the corners of a square of side $10 \, cm$. The net magnetic induction at $P$ is....$T$

Two short bar magnets of length $1 \ cm$ each have magnetic moments $1.20 \ Am^2$ and $1.00 \ Am^2$ respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their $N$ poles pointing towards the South. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of $20.0 \ cm$. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point $O$ of the line joining their centres is close to (Horizontal component of Earth's magnetic induction is $3.6 \times 10^{-5} \ Wb/m^2$)

Magnetostatic screening or shielding can be created by

Match List-$I$ with List-$II$.
List-$I$List-$II$
$(A)$ Magnetic induction$(I)$ Ampere meter$^2$
$(B)$ Magnetic intensity$(II)$ Weber
$(C)$ Magnetic flux$(III)$ Gauss
$(D)$ Magnetic moment$(IV)$ Ampere meter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Many of the diagrams given in the figure show magnetic field lines (thick lines in the figure) wrongly. Point out what is wrong with them. Some of them may describe electrostatic field lines correctly. Point out which ones.

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo