For the function $f(x) = e^{\cos x}$, Rolle's theorem is

  • A
    applicable when $\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{3\pi}{2}$
  • B
    applicable when $0 \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}$
  • C
    applicable when $0 \leq x \leq \pi$
  • D
    applicable when $\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}$

Explore More

Similar Questions

Let $f(x)=2+\cos x$ for all real $x$.
$STATEMENT-1$: For each real $t$,there exists a point $c$ in $[t, t+\pi]$ such that $f^{\prime}(c)=0$. because
$STATEMENT-2$: $f(t)=f(t+2\pi)$ for each real $t$.

For the Mean Value Theorem $f(b) - f(a) = (b - a) f'(x_1)$ where $a < x_1 < b$,if $f(x) = 1/x$,then $x_1 = ?$

Difficult
View Solution

The value of $c$ for the Lagrange's mean value theorem for $f(x)=\sqrt{x^2-x}, x \in[1,4]$ is

If $f(x)=|x-2|, x \in[0,4]$ then the Rolle's theorem cannot be applied to the function because

For all twice differentiable functions $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R},$ with $f(0)=f(1)=f^{\prime}(0)=0,$ which of the following is true?

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo