If $f(x)=2^{100} x+1$ and $g(x)=3^{100} x+1$, then the set of real numbers $x$ such that $f(g(x))=x$ is

Let $R$ be the set of real numbers and the mapping $f: R \rightarrow R$ and $g: R \rightarrow R$ be defined by $f(x) = 5 - x^2$ and $g(x) = 3x - 4$, then the value of $(f \circ g)(-1)$ is

If $g(x) = x^2 + x - 2$ and $\frac{1}{2} (g \circ f)(x) = 2x^2 - 5x + 2$,then $f(x)$ is equal to:

If $f: R \rightarrow R$ and $g: R \rightarrow R$ are defined by $f(x)=x-[x]$ and $g(x)=[x]$ for $x \in R$, where $[x]$ is the greatest integer not exceeding $x$, then for every $x \in R, f(g(x))$ is equal to

Let $f(x) = \sin x$ and $g(x) = \cos x$. Which of the following statements is false?

If $f: R \rightarrow R$ and $g: R \rightarrow R$ are defined by $f(x)=|x|$ and $g(x)=[x-3]$ for $x \in R$, then $\{g(f(x)):-\frac{8}{5} < x < \frac{8}{5}\}$ is equal to